Codeforces Round #721 — EDITORIAL
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Codeforces Round #721 — EDITORIAL
Author: loud_mouth
Idea: Bignubie
1527B1 - Palindrome Game (easy version)
Author: DenOMINATOR
Idea: shikhar7s
1527B2 - Palindrome Game (hard version)
Author: DenOMINATOR
Idea:DenOMINATOR
Author: sharabhagrawal25
Idea: rivalq
Author: mallick630
Idea: CoderAnshu
18 months ago, # | How to solve E using divide and conquer DP? (and especially how to maintain the cost around?) |
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link here is my code for divide and conquer technique
i took the idea from the code given below and understood it link
basically what we are doing here is we are maintaining a persistent segment tree on every ith index which will provide us with the information that if we consider a segment of [i,j] then what will be its cost. The basic idea here is to use segment tree with range updates and point query.You could see from my code how to update ranges its pretty straightforward.
now that we can find out the cost of any segment in log(n)complexity all we have to do is calculate the dp which can be calculated with the help of divide and conquer the only hard part of this method was the persistent segment tree part which was difficult to understand and actually think by yourself(atleast for me it was very new idea)
18 months ago, # | In problem B1, when all the elements of the string is 1, then how Bob wins? |
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It is given in the input section that string ss contains at least one 00
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But for this, why Draw is not the correct answer?
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Yes, technically it should be DRAW but to avoid confusion we omitted that case
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i have implemented dp for B2, but it's giving me incorrect output, pls help me find the bug
const int N = 1e3; ll dp[N/2 + 1][N/2 + 1][2][2]; void solve() { int n; cin >> n; string s; cin >> s; int cnt00 {}, cnt01 {}, mid {}, rev {}; for(int i = 0; i < n - 1 - i; i++) { if (s[i] == s[n - 1 - i] && s[i] == '0') { cnt00++; } if (s[i] != s[n - 1 - i]) { cnt01++; } } if (n % 2 && s[n/2] == '0') { mid = 1; } if (dp[cnt01][cnt00][mid][rev] < 0) { cout << "ALICE" << '\n'; } else if (dp[cnt01][cnt00][mid][rev] > 0) { cout << "BOB" << '\n'; } else { cout << "DRAW" << '\n'; } } int main() { fastio(); for(int i = 0; i <= N/2; i++) { for(int j = 0; j <= N/2; j++) { for(int mid = 0; mid < 2; mid++) { for(int rev = 0; rev < 2; rev++) { dp[i][j][mid][rev] = INF; } } } } dp[0][0][0][0] = 0; for(int i = 0; i <= N/2; i++) { for(int j = 0; j <= N/2; j++) { for(int mid = 0; mid < 2; mid++) { for(int rev = 0; rev < 2; rev++) { // i -> cnt of symmetric 01 pairs // j -> cnt of symmetric 00 pairs if (i > 0) { dp[i][j][mid][rev] = min(dp[i][j][mid][rev], 1-dp[i-1][j][mid][0]); } if (j > 0) { dp[i][j][mid][rev] = min(dp[i][j][mid][rev], 1-dp[i+1][j-1][mid][0]); } if (mid > 0) { dp[i][j][mid][rev] = min(dp[i][j][mid][rev], 1-dp[i][j][0][0]); } if (rev == 0 && i > 0) { dp[i][j][mid][rev] = min(dp[i][j][mid][rev], -dp[i][j][mid][1]); } } } } } int tc = 1; cin >> tc; while(tc--) { solve(); } }
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18 months ago, # | Does someone know of any problem similar to C? |
what is the time complexity in B2 dp approach. 1.is it O(n^2) for one test case as it depends on no of 00 pairs and no of 01 pairs? 2.also if n^2 per test case how it passes the judge in 1 sec as n^2*t=1e9 ? |
MY ISSUE PLEASE HELP ( PROBLM B1) !! UPD: |
18 months ago, # | After spending about 20-25 minutes I understood the logic of problem C ( yes I'm still a noob), but I was wondering how does one come up with that logic during contests ( I know practice, practice practice) but I suck at dp and I've been trying to improve it, so if anyone has dp sheets that can build my foundation it'll be of great help thanks :), I've been doing classic dp problems like knapsack, longest common subsequence type questions and even started with matrix chain multiplication recently. |
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The states are easier to come up during contests if you really try to, most probably you just take what the problem asks and derive subtasks as a prefix, eg: Kadane-ish (or multiple prefixes across multiple sequences, eg: LCS), suffix, subarray of the original sequence, eg: matrix chain multiplication. I'm sure after a lot of practicepractice, things would become somewhat more intuitive and reflexive.
18 months ago, # | Alternative solution to E: First steps are also coming up with the dpdp and writing the brute-force transition formula. Then, by considering last(ar+1)last(ar+1), we can prove the following property:
Therefore, cc satisfies Quadrilateral Inequality, where a divide-and-conquer solution works in O(nklogn)O(nklogn) time. Note that calculating cc needs a two pointers trick similar to 868F - Yet Another Minimization Problem. |
18 months ago, # | Anyone please, help me to understand.. For problem B1 help me to figure out the answer for this test case 00100 |
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ALICE — 10100 BOB — 10101 ALICE- 10111 BOB — 11101 (REVERSE) ALICE — 11111
ALICE --> 3 BOB -->1 BOB WINS
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Why it is not possible?
ALICE — 10100 BOB — 00101(REVERSE) ALICE- 10101 BOB — 11101 ALICE — 10111(REVERSE) BOB — 11111
ALICE --> 2 BOB -->2 DRAW
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it's not that you can't do that . you can .But you know what , the word optimal is mentioned in the question, means if i got a chance to play then i tried my best to win , so if bob put a 1 in the string instead of reversing he will land in the winning position , instead of a draw. You can't just brute force and say bob or alice win or its a draw. its not mandiatory that if i have a chance to reverse the string then i have to reverse it , so that i will be relived from that 1 dollar penalty, you can't do that .
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18 months ago, # | rivalq the_nightmare I am confused in the editorial for E. Aren't the k mentioned in the dp transitions and the k mentioned in the big oh notation different? |
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Alice can win this way:
A pays -> 1001
B pays -> 1101
A reverses -> 1011
B pays -> 1111
B = 2 A = 1, so Alice wins. Bob has no other moves.
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According to you Alice wins..But according to Jyotirmaya Bob wins...So what is the exact ans...Both of you correct.
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In fact , some users of the Chinese online judge : Luogu said that the difficulty of these problems is not monotonically increasing and they suggested that you should have changed the order of problem B and C. the_nightmare |
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Basically, we have to put together B1 and B2 due to contest restrictions due to which we are not able to swap B2 and C. But we have provided the scoring according to difficulty B(750+1500) total 2250 and C only 1500.
18 months ago, # | The term "Contiguous Subarray" is much more quicker to grasp than "Subsegment". Hope future authors see this :) Nice Contest btw |
18 months ago, # | Could someone please write a simpler edit for Problem-C, I have gone over it a lot of times but am still confused as to why the question creator went for: value[a[i]] += (i + 1); please help me out with the logic. I understood the task but couldn't implement it that well and now I'm even more confused. |
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Consider and element
i
. Now if take an element j such thata[i]==a[j]
andj < i
then subarraya[j-i]
will occur as part of all subarray's fromi = 0 to j
i.e j + 1 times. Sovalue[a[i]] += i + 1
18 months ago, # | Can someone help me with my solution : My idea: |
18 months ago, # | My code is giving wrong answer. Please someone help !! include<bits/stdc++.h>using namespace std; int main(){ int t; cin>>t; while(t--){ int n; cin>>n; string s; cin>>s; int count=0; if(n==1&&s[0]=='0'){ cout<<"BOB"<<'\n'; continue; } for(int i=0;i<s.length();i++){ s[i]=='0'?count+=1:count=count; } if(count%2==0){ cout<<"BOB"<<'\n'; } else{ cout<<"ALICE"<<'\n'; } } |
18 months ago, # | Nice explanation of problem B2 |
Can someone give a small test for those codes which fail test case 5 by printing 1 instead of 0 at 1923rd position for problem D? Submission |
18 months ago, # | In problem A I am getting Solution What does the pow function in c++ return? In some previous questions also the I got WA because of pow function return type, so can anyone tell |
18 months ago, # | Can someone explain me how does the dynamic programming solution for B2 works? From my understanding of the problem when we consider alice we add positively, when we consider bob we add negatively. But how does that happen in code? How does the code distinguish bob from alice? And how does it simulate turns? In other words: can someone explain me how the simulation of the game occurs during the bottom up transitions of the editorial / given code? Thanks in advance. |
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Because dp[i][j][k][l] is the optimal answer for a state where i is the number of 00, j is the number of 01 or 10, and k = 1 denotes if the middle position in case of odd length string is 0 and l = 1 denotes that in the last turn other person reversed the sting thus we can not reverse.
For all the states, we will assume that the current turn is of Alice and to compute the answer for that state, we will add negative of the transition states, which will denote Bob's optimal score.
18 months ago, # | can anyone pls tell why i am getting time limit exceeded on test case 7 in problem D MEX TREE i am just doing a dfs traversal once to calculate subtree sizes and then iterating from 1 to n and marking not visited nodes as visited in my current path and calculating answer for each mex value. my submission link https://codeforces.com/contest/1527/submission/116996030 |
18 months ago, # | In Problem D: as mentioned in the editorial that we need to "update the subtree sizes as we move up to parent recursively", we don't need to do this. When (l!=r) we will always choose the other parent. Only when we are calculating MEX1 (the previous l was equal to r) so we have to update the size of 0 subtree only once. |
18 months ago, # | I do not know if this approach has been covered for E using divide and conquer dp. To get cost of current interval, maintain global 2 pointers on the array, sum variable and array of deque. Fit the pointer for each query. Amortized complexity over per level of dp should be N*log(N). So with K layers it becomes K*N*log(N). |
15 months ago, # | Problem 1527C - Sequence Pair Weight could have been done greedily (and imo it's easier). Let d(x,y)d(x,y) denote the number of segments which contain elements at indices xx and yy (indices start from 0 so x,y∈0,1,2,…,n−1x,y∈0,1,2,…,n−1). It is easy to see that if y>xy>x then d(x,y)=(x+1)∗(n−y)d(x,y)=(x+1)∗(n−y). This allows obvious O(n2)O(n2) solution, but it can be done faster in O(n)O(n). Let's say we have a vector vv and we are at it's ii-th element. Then, we can calculate the answer as: d(v0,vi)+d(v1,vi)+⋯+d(vi−1,vi)d(v0,vi)+d(v1,vi)+⋯+d(vi−1,vi)which is just (v0+1)∗(n−vi)+(v1+1)∗(n−vi)+⋯+(vi−1+1)∗(n−vi)(v0+1)∗(n−vi)+(v1+1)∗(n−vi)+⋯+(vi−1+1)∗(n−vi)and this can be simplified to: (v1+v2+v3+⋯+vi−1+i−1)∗(n−vi)(v1+v2+v3+⋯+vi−1+i−1)∗(n−vi)Which you can easily calculate while iterating through the vector. Code: 124839948 |
12 months ago, # | I have a simpler solution for A:
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8 months ago, # | in b1 can anyone explain output for this string 01011010 i am getting draw |
in problem C let the array be, 1 3 1 2 1 when we take subarray , 1 3 1 2 1 weight will be 3 {(1,2),(2,5),(1,5)} 3 1 2 1 then weight will be 1 { (3,5) } but according to editorial the weight of second one will be 3. anyone please reply ? |
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